I think you’re getting confused. Before the creation of Israel there were jewish palestinians, and Christian Palestinians and muslim Palestinians. And then the apartheid ethnostate of Israel was created, and israel made everyone who was not jewish a 2nd class citizen or a refugee.
Before the creation of israel people of the three faiths were living together in Palestine.
Ah, so you’re moving the goalposts from May 14th, 1948 to November 2nd, 1917?
Admittedly, there seems to be fewer records of violence towards Jews in the region. Probably under a 1000 killed through violence throughout the 1800s. But there were oppressive laws set by the Ottoman regime - limiting land sales, requiring Jews to work in certain industries and forbidding them from others, etc. You know, apartheid.
I don’t think it’s unfair to link the statement “there was less violence and hate towards Jews before Israel” with you know, actually checking dates before Israeli settlers started arriving.
If you want to debate perv this, which group was there first and can lay claim to the land? Oh look, it’s Egyptian Arabs. Source. And before you debate perv me with context. It certainly wasn’t the Jews who were first, and you know it.
I don’t think the Philistines have any relation to the modern Palestinian population. I believe they were all killed at the end of the Bronze Age by the Sea People. Or maybe they were the Sea People. 🤷♂️
I don’t think the Philistines have any relation to the modern Palestinian population.
No clue if they’re genetically the same people, but it’s not really important. That region has been recognized as Palestine for a long time. Any argument about statehood is just Eurocentric justification to steal land from the natives.
I believe they were all killed at the end of the Bronze Age by the Sea People. Or maybe they were the Sea People. 🤷♂️
Yes, because borders, territories, and statehood are only creations of eurocentric policies. They are definitely not a natural progression of tribalism that was capable of centralizing authority in some form. I mean it isn’t like the earliest examples are largely in Asia and Africa.
Formalizing it for the purposes of stopping wars in the current nation state is somewhat from Europe, but existed in Asia previously in a similar form.
And how is it used as a justification to steal land from natives?
Edit: and how doesn’t it matter? Like you tried to make a point and then just said it didn’t matter when challenged. And the name being used for a region is not the same as existing as a nation or state or nation state. And what’s funny is you ignored the part about how the name started to be used for the area isn’t of Judea, because the Greeks wanted it to have a purely geographical name rather than something connected to the Jews.
So what you’re saying is that Palestine itself is just some eurocentric creation used to drive off the natives from Judea?
Think about how Jews were treated before Israeli apartheid in Palestine… As in they were Palestinian Jews who lived in peace with everyone. Until the colonists came.
In the narrative works of Arabs in Palestine in the late Ottoman period, as evidenced in the autobiographies and diaries of Khalil al-Sakakini and Wasif Jawhariyyeh, “native” Jews were often referred to and described as abnaa al-balad (sons of the country), ‘compatriots’, or Yahud awlad Arab (Jews, sons of Arabs).[4] When the First Palestinian Congress of February 1919 issued its anti-Zionist manifesto rejecting Zionist immigration, it extended a welcome to those Jews “among us who have been Arabicized, who have been living in our province since before the war; they are as we are, and their loyalties are our own.”[4]
Not to mention the PLO considers them Palestinians (and the funny fact that needed to reiterate this and remind people that it’s okay and normal to be both Jewish and Palestinian)
In Palestine? Source? “Pogram” doesn’t sound like a very Arab word.
The term entered the English language from Russian to describe 19th- and 20th-century attacks on Jews in the Russian Empire (mostly within the Pale of Settlement).
Oh yeah cuz it’s not. So please send some sources for what you’re referring to
The trigger which turned the procession into a riot is not known with certainty.
The British military administration of Palestine was criticized for withdrawing troops from inside Jerusalem and because it was slow to regain control. As a result of the riots, trust among the British, Jews, and Arabs eroded. One consequence was that the region’s Jewish community increased moves towards an autonomous infrastructure and security apparatus parallel to that of the British administration.
So that’s not a Palestinian Pogrom.
Lets look at the second one… wait 1517… 1517 ahahahahahahahahahahahahahahaha
Edit: ohh the person I’m replying to is very much unserious
A pogrom[a] is a violent riot incited with the aim of massacring or expelling an ethnic or religious group, particularly Jews.[1] The term entered the English language from Russian to describe 19th- and 20th-century attacks on Jews in the Russian Empire (mostly within the Pale of Settlement).
Arabs wouldn’t have called something like the 1929 Palestine riots a “pogrom” or a “riot”, because they didn’t speak English, French, Yiddish, or Russian. Things have different names in different languages. They call it the Thawrat al-Burāq.
In English, we might use either the more specific Russian loanword pogrom, or the more general French loanwords riot or massacre. Labeling something a riot doesn’t mean it has to have been done by the French, and labeling something a pogrom doesn’t mean it has to have been done by the Russians, even if that’s the origin of the loanword…
Why can’t there be Jewish Palestinians?
How are Jews treated in Palestine right now? What are the goals of the major Palestinian organizations when it comes to Jews?
I think you’re getting confused. Before the creation of Israel there were jewish palestinians, and Christian Palestinians and muslim Palestinians. And then the apartheid ethnostate of Israel was created, and israel made everyone who was not jewish a 2nd class citizen or a refugee.
Before the creation of israel people of the three faiths were living together in Palestine.
So i’m quite sure the problem is actually israel
There has never been a state of Palestine. In world history. And that region has never been very stable. With populations or governments.
People don’t need statehood designation to exist. They’re just, ya know, born.
Never said otherwise. What point are you trying to make?
Just that people and cultures can exist without a designation of statehood.
Do you often like to toss out obvious statements that no one was debating into conversations?
Not generally. Only when someone comments a non sequitur.
Are just the big ones I pulled from here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intercommunal_conflict_in_Mandatory_Palestine
All three of those riots are the result of the Balfour declaration, which is what lead to the creation of Israel.
Ah, so you’re moving the goalposts from May 14th, 1948 to November 2nd, 1917?
Admittedly, there seems to be fewer records of violence towards Jews in the region. Probably under a 1000 killed through violence throughout the 1800s. But there were oppressive laws set by the Ottoman regime - limiting land sales, requiring Jews to work in certain industries and forbidding them from others, etc. You know, apartheid.
I don’t think it’s unfair to link the statement “there was less violence and hate towards Jews before Israel” with you know, actually checking dates before Israeli settlers started arriving.
So Israel began with Jewish settlers first arriving, the Balfour declaration, or Israeli Independence?
Just so I don’t waste time for you sealions.
If you want to debate perv this, which group was there first and can lay claim to the land? Oh look, it’s Egyptian Arabs. Source. And before you debate perv me with context. It certainly wasn’t the Jews who were first, and you know it.
Palestine is literally the Philistines from the bible. The land has been recognized as Palestine since the romans https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syria_Palaestina
The person you’re responding to is distorting the truth on purposeEdit: Added the strikethrough, I was responding to the wrong person
I don’t think the Philistines have any relation to the modern Palestinian population. I believe they were all killed at the end of the Bronze Age by the Sea People. Or maybe they were the Sea People. 🤷♂️
No clue if they’re genetically the same people, but it’s not really important. That region has been recognized as Palestine for a long time. Any argument about statehood is just Eurocentric justification to steal land from the natives.
https://www.haaretz.com/israel-news/2015-10-29/ty-article/.premium/why-are-palestinians-called-palestinians/0000017f-e7d6-dc7e-adff-f7ffc2390000
Yes, because borders, territories, and statehood are only creations of eurocentric policies. They are definitely not a natural progression of tribalism that was capable of centralizing authority in some form. I mean it isn’t like the earliest examples are largely in Asia and Africa.
Formalizing it for the purposes of stopping wars in the current nation state is somewhat from Europe, but existed in Asia previously in a similar form.
And how is it used as a justification to steal land from natives?
Edit: and how doesn’t it matter? Like you tried to make a point and then just said it didn’t matter when challenged. And the name being used for a region is not the same as existing as a nation or state or nation state. And what’s funny is you ignored the part about how the name started to be used for the area isn’t of Judea, because the Greeks wanted it to have a purely geographical name rather than something connected to the Jews.
So what you’re saying is that Palestine itself is just some eurocentric creation used to drive off the natives from Judea?
Think about how Jews were treated before Israeli apartheid in Palestine… As in they were Palestinian Jews who lived in peace with everyone. Until the colonists came.
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Yes massacres happened, but this is not the “big picture” of Palestinian Jews in Palestine predating Israel.
Here’s another wiki page: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestinian_Jews
Not to mention the PLO considers them Palestinians (and the funny fact that needed to reiterate this and remind people that it’s okay and normal to be both Jewish and Palestinian)
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Ummm bud, who was in control of Palestine at that time? It wasn’t the Palestinians it was the British
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In Palestine? Source? “Pogram” doesn’t sound like a very Arab word.
Oh yeah cuz it’s not. So please send some sources for what you’re referring to
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So that’s not a Palestinian Pogrom.
Lets look at the second one… wait 1517… 1517 ahahahahahahahahahahahahahahaha
Edit: ohh the person I’m replying to is very much unserious
Notice the sentence right above that:
Arabs wouldn’t have called something like the 1929 Palestine riots a “pogrom” or a “riot”, because they didn’t speak English, French, Yiddish, or Russian. Things have different names in different languages. They call it the Thawrat al-Burāq.
In English, we might use either the more specific Russian loanword pogrom, or the more general French loanwords riot or massacre. Labeling something a riot doesn’t mean it has to have been done by the French, and labeling something a pogrom doesn’t mean it has to have been done by the Russians, even if that’s the origin of the loanword…